Fr. Ernesto Obregón
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13 years ago @ iamhealed.net - Tweet Tweet for 2010-0... · 0 replies · +1 points
15 years ago @ Sarx - Buffalo Saint · 2 replies · +1 points
15 years ago @ OrthoCuban - Radical Reformers, the... · 1 reply · +1 points
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15 years ago @ OrthoCuban - But, Holy Tradition do... · 2 replies · +1 points
But, let me back up a minute. “Catholic” groups, of whatever stripe, would all tend to say that there was allowable development in the first couple of centuries of Church life. That is, what you see in Acts has changed by the Pastoral Epistles. And, what is perceived in the Pastoral Epistles receives its development during the next century or two. In other words, there is the feeling that the Holy Spirit truly guided. However, in some ways, the Orthodox are significantly more conservative than the West. The reason why the Orthodox insist so strongly on the Church being present with a single bishop is not merely a slap at the Roman Catholic Church. Rather, I am beginning to realize, it is because they hold that the structure of the Church (patriarchates, etc.) belong to pastoral outworking of Holy Tradition rather than to the dogmatic outworking. They still conservatively hold to the oldest perception found in the Early Church, right after the Pastoral Epistles, one bishop equals one Church. Now, mind you, eventually you do have to say that it does appear that the Holy Spirit definitely wanted some certain structure in place. I, again, repeat that there is a place for Providence. But, the Church does have real authority to structure itself. Nevertheless, if a Tsar removes the Patriarch and works with a Synod of Bishops, then the Church just keeps on going. Nothing essential has been destroyed. If a Church, such as the OCA, exists in a bit of an in-between place, insofar as structure, nevertheless, it exists. Nothing essential has been destroyed. But, if a group claims to exist but is not recognized, in general, by the Patriarchates, then it does not exist, regardless of its vaunted apostolic succession.
In other words, though I am still “catching it,” the Eastern view of Holy Tradition is not as juridical and detail oriented as the Western view. Perhaps it is like the old saying. The West looks at the trees and sees all species of trees with a huge variety. The East looks at the forest and sees a forest full of beauty. I do not think it is self-denial nor a closing of eyes. Rather, it is a non-juridical approach. I am explaining myself badly.
15 years ago @ OrthoCuban - But, Holy Tradition do... · 4 replies · +1 points
The way I was taught, and from what I can absorb from my Arab priest friends, the actual detail of the shape of the Divine Liturgy and the development are not issues that destroy Holy Tradition, because the visible Church's worship is the practical outworking of Holy Tradition. I guess one way to put it is that we received a skeleton that is fleshed out in each generation with the culturally and pastorally appropriate ways to express it. In one way, it reminds me of an icon (what else, right?). Looked at with an analytical eye, an icon is imperfect. You can see the brush strokes, some are scratched, stained with the smoke of years, etc. Nevertheless, they are windows to heaven. So is the Church.
Currently the practical outworking of our worship is leading us towards shorter worship, and fewer feasts being celebrated in the Church. Interestingly enough, the major Patriarchates are not objecting to the changes, although, certainly, there are converts and ultra-orthodox who are. I have watched Arab bishops and priests exercise further economia as necessary without murmur from either congregation or fellow priests. [Mind you, they do not exercise that economia every Sunday, only when necessary.] And, it is obvious that though the skeleton and central parts of the Divine Liturgy are indeed inherited, the entire Liturgy is not to be used as a straightjacket which we must follow in exquisite detail as though it were a juridical document. It is worth remembering that the development of the Divine Liturgy happened among people who culturally were not juridically minded but mystically minded.
Finally, there is such a thing as Providence. It is not all simply human development. That one Patriarch was wrong for declaring that one liturgy as the Liturgy. However, it has become a beloved Liturgy. Having said that, when I was at the St. Stephen's residential, I was interested to find out that several of the Arab priests with advanced degrees are doing increasing research into the Middle Eastern roots, ways, and practices of Christianity, including a study of Syrian Christianity at the time of the Chalcedonian split. Some of the saints of that time wrote some exquisite poetry that has been lost in the general Hellenization and Latinization of the Church.
I will agree that, in a West eaten alive by Hegelian and post-modern philosophies, not to mention an excessive orientation towards juridical thinking, every slight perturbation, every slight difference is somehow proof of conspiracies, persecutions, suppressions, etc. But, in an East that never insisted on a sameness of worship, those arguments just seem odd. Yep, we have ended up, currently, with St. John Chrysostom's Liturgy being the celebrated one. And, it is celebrated in a variety of ways, with various litanies being included or excluded, various troparia being included or excluded, with variation in when censings are done (or if), with various local adaptations. With that type of variety, why would various and different beginnings trending towards some uniformity be proof of a lack of Holy Tradition? You know well, from Episcopal teachings, that there were clearly some universals. The sacred meal, the recitation of the story, that He took, blessed, broke, gave, etc. Much of the rest is variety. And, much variety continues to this day.
15 years ago @ Sarx - Nobama but Obama · 0 replies · +1 points
15 years ago @ OrthoCuban - Not everything is Holy... · 1 reply · +1 points
15 years ago @ OrthoCuban - What is the hē Palaia... · 0 replies · +1 points
15 years ago @ OrthoCuban - What is the hē Palaia... · 0 replies · +1 points
Let me give you one example. The Isaiah verse in Hebrew does not say, "a virgin shall bear a child." Rather, it says, "a young maiden shall bear a child." When the verse was translated into the Septuagint, the word parthenos was chosen. However, the word used in Hebrew was almah which is simply a maiden rather than bethulah, which is more strictly a virgin. In fact, St. Jerome thus replies to one of his critics, Juvianus: "I know that the Jews are accustomed to meet us with the objection that in Hebrew the word Almah does not mean a Virgin, but a young woman. And, to speak truth, a virgin is properly called Bethulah, but a young woman, or a girl, is not Almah, but Naarah"! (Jerome, Adv. Javianum I, 32; N&PNF, vi, 370.)" In other words, an equivalent was chosen that most closely caught the spirit of the verse. And, while it was assumed that a Hebrew maiden was a virgin, the same could not be said about a classical Greek maiden. Thus, it was safer to pick "parthenos." Later St. Luke makes it abundantly clear that this was simply not a pregnant maiden but the result of a holy act of God. She was truly parthenos.
In the same way, diatheke was chosen to translate the Hebrew word, "beriyt." There is no doubt that beriyt in the Old Testament always means covenant. Not only does it mean covenant, but it is used as part of a phrase to "cut a covenant," or "karat beriyt." Thus, the idea of sacrifice is the predominant one, not testament. So, why was diatheke chosen instead of syntheke? Remember, the translators would not have been thinking "testament" at all. Well, again, the most likely explanation is that of the close equivalent. Syntheke carries the idea of a covenant between equals. Diatheke, meanwhile, carries the idea more of something for which one party is responsible. Thus, while it did mean last will and testament after 400 BC, this did not mean that it could not be imbued with additional meanings. Thus, for the Septuagint translator, diatheke allows them to say that this is a covenant (remember they were translating beriyt) that is much more of one party than the other. The New Testament writers grabbed that word and realized that testament was precisely one of the facets of covenant that was present in Jesus' words. Again, it appears that, as with the use of parthenos, the Lord prepared the ground with the Septuagint translators.
"Luther, in his German Bible, displayed amazing insight as he skillfully moved back and forth between Bund ('covenant') and 'Testaments' in his New Testament. (He did, however, consistently use Bund to translate berith throughout his whole Old Testament.) Luther's writings ably explain his methodology. Whenever the diatheke was a mere promise, he used Bund, that is, when the context implied that the fulfillment of a 'covenant' promise, especially in terms of Jesus' death and His work as the God-Man, Luther used some form of Testaments."